Symbiosis National Aptitude(SNAP)
The Symbiosis University is ranked topmost amongst the MBA colleges in India. It holds in its wings 37 institutes across Pune providing quality education in the form of Symbiosis Distance Learning MBA programs, Symbiosis Correspondence MBA, and the full time MBA from Symbiosis through the SNAP. This community is for MBA Aspirants looking to get global learning experience through distance learning MBA, correspondence MBA, or a full time MBA in Symbiosis. It provides information on SNAP test, eligibility for Symbiosis Distance Learning, application for correspondence MBA, courses offered by Symbiosis and other information for all mba aspirants.
Symbiosis National Aptitude (SNAP) Test is an entrance test for admission to postgraduate management courses of Symbiosis Institute of Business Management(SIBM), Pune and various other Symbiosis International University (SIU) institutes in India. Giving SNAP is just a pre-condition for admission to the various Symbiosis institutes. Candidates have to apply separately to the various institutes in which they are interested in to take admission.
SIBM, Pune was the first Symbiosis Institute and was established in 1978. SIBM is considered to be among the best management institutes in India. In addition to SIBM there are 10 other Symbiosis Institutes, admission in which is through SNAP.
List of all the Symbiosis Institutes with their websites:
1. Symbiosis Institute of Business Management (SIBM) -nwww.sibm.edu
2. Symbiosis Institute of Media and Communication (SIMC) - www.simc.edu
3. Symbiosis Institute of Computer Studies & Research (SICSR) - www.symbiosiscomputers.com
4. Symbiosis Institute of International Business (SIIB) - www.siib.ac.in
5. Symbiosis Institute of Health Sciences (SIHS) - www.sihsspune.org
6. Symbiosis Institute of Geoinformatics (SIG) - www.sigpune.com
7. Symbiosis Institute of Telecom Management (SITM) - www.symbiosistelecom.com
8. Symbiosis Institute of Management Studies (SIMS) - www.sims.edu
9. Symbiosis Centre for Management & Human Resource Development (SCMHRD) - www.scmhrd.edu
10. Symbiosis Centre for Information Technology (SCIT) - www.scit.edu
11. Symbiosis Institute of Operations Management (SIOM) - www.siom.in
To apply for SNAP a candidate should be a graduate with at least 50% marks in graduation for general candidates and 45% for SC/ST candidates. Final year students can also apply for provisional admission.
The candidates have to first register themselves on the SNAP website www.snaptest.org. After that they can make the payment for entrance fees either by cash, demand draft or credit card. The candidates can make payment through cash at the Axis Bank branches and send the challan receipt to Symbiosis International University. The candidates can also choose to make the payment through Demand Draft in favor of “Symbiosis Test Secretariat” payable at Pune. Online payment method is available on the website itself.
SNAP Test Structure
SNAP Test duration is 120 minutes.
SNAP Test is an objective test. Each question has 4 responses. Candidate should choose an appropriate response.
Each wrong answer attracts 25% negative marks.
The four sections are:
1. General English: Reading Comprehension, Verbal Reasoning, Verbal Ability 40
2. Quantitative, Data Interpretation & Data Sufficiency 40
3. General Awareness: General Knowledge, Current Affairs, Business Scenario 40
4. Analytical & Logical Reasoning 60
Important Dates (Tentative):
Date of entrance Test: 3rd week of December, 2011
Last Date of registration: 4th week of November, 2011
Payment closes on: end of November, 2011
Declaration of results- 2nd week of January, 2012
Shortlist of SIBM for GD / PI: 3rd week of January, 2012
GD / PI MBA: 4th week of January to end of the month of January, 2012
Final Merit list display: 2nd week of February, 2012
Last date for payment of fees: 4th week of February, 2012
Beginning of Pre induction Programme: first week of April, 2012
Course Commencement: 1st week of June, 2012 at 9.00 a.m
Symbiosis Test Secretariat
Symbiosis Infotech Campus, Plot no.15,
Rajiv Gandhi Infotech Park, Hinjewadi, Pune - 411 057
Phone : 020-22934049 / 50
Fax : 020-22934051
E-mail : Contact I
Website : www.snaptest.org
Smaple Test Paper:
Directions for questions 1 to 8: In each of the following questions, statements 1 to 6 are
respectively the first and last sentences of a paragraph. Statements A ,B ,C and D come in
between them. Rearrange A, B, C and D in such a manner that they make a coherent
paragraph together with statements 1 and 6. Select the correct order from the given choices
and mark its number as your answer.
1. 1. Women’s health status is basic to their advancement in all the fields of endeavour.
A The fundamental issues concerning women and their health are nutrition, sanitation, overwork, etc.
B. They face high risk of malnutrition, retardation in growth and development, etc. at almost every stage of their lives.
C. The main reason of this decline in the sex ratio is high mortality rates among females in all age groups.
D. This has resulted in the fact that in India, there are fewer women than men.
6. In girls, malnutrition, under nutrition and limited access to health care are seen as the main causes of mortality.
DCAB (2) BADC (3) ACDB (4) ABDC
2. 1. One obvious explanation of the striking continuity and independence of the Chinese civilization is the following.
A It was also endowed with an even greater capacity to assimilate alieninfluence, probably because the tradition of civilization rested on different foundations in different countries.
B. Islamic rule made more difference to India than to any dynasty’s rise or fall in China.
C. China was remote, inaccessible to alien influence, far from sources of disturbance in other great civilizations.
D. In India, the great stabilizers were rested on the foundation of religion and a caste system inseparable from it.
6. In China they rested on the culture of an administrative elite which survived dynasties and empires and kept China on the same course.
(1) CABD (2) CDBA (3) CBAD (4) ABCD
3. 1. The ethnographic composition and history of the Himalayan regions of Kumaon, Garwal and Himachal Pradesh form a fascinating field of study.
A. Besides, the indepth study of place names offers interesting insights.
B. ‘Himachal ’ has been explained as ‘the land of snow’.
C. The author has endeavoured to trace the roots of the Himalayan culture and discuss the cultural components of the ancient inhabitants of that society.
D. More than a dozen communities which have played an important part in the formation of history and culture of this region are studied in the book called “The Ancient Communities of India”.
6. Similarly, ‘Kumaon ’ has been derived from the name of Kurmavana.
(1) CADB (2) ACBD (3) DCBA (4) DCAB
4. 1. The study of social change, in the view of the nebulous nature of its History is a difficult task.
A. This job becomes more difficult in the case of a society like India’s.
B. In this form, change ceases to be viewed as a normal social process.
C. This is because India has a fathomless historical depth and a plurality of traditions, but it is also engulfed in a movement of nationalistic aspirations under which concepts of change and mod ernization have ideological meanings.
D. Instead, change becomes desirable in itself, and must be sought for.
6. This phenomenon of change is treated by some social scientists as equivalent
to ‘development’ and ‘progress’.
(1) ACBD (2) CABD (3) CBDA (4) BADC
5. 1. The system of the composition of the Legislative Council of a State as laid down in the Constitution is not final.
A. But until the Parliament legislates on the matter, the composition be as given in the Constitution, which is as follows.
B. The final power of providing the composition of this chamber of the state Legislature is given to the Union Parliament.
C. The Council will be a partly elected and partly nominated body.
D. The election of the members will be an indirect one and in accordance with the principle of proportional representation by a single transferable vote.
6. The members being drawn from various sources, the Council shall have a
(1) DABC (2) CBDA (3) BACD (4) DCAB
6. 1. Green Revolution refers to a significant improvement in agricultural production in a short period and the sustenance of higher level of agricultural production over a fairly long period of time.
A. This new strategy envisaged raising farm output through the use of High -Yielding Varieties (HYV) pr seeds, chemical fertilizers, implements and machinery, etc.
B. It was sponsored by the Ford Foundation which was invited by theGovernment of India to suggest means to increase agricultural production.
C. The necessity for such increase arose due to the continued stagnation of production and the rapidly increasing demands.
D. This type of green revolution has occurred in India as a result of adopting the ‘new agricultural strategy’ in 1964-65.
6. As one of the results, the increase in the demand for some cereals has been met with to some extent.
(1) BADC (2) DABC (3) CDBA (4) BCAD
7. 1. Economists differ over the causes that lead to inflationary rise in prices.
A. Cost-Push inflation is caused by wage -push and profit -push to prices.
B. There are the quantity theorists or monetarists who attribute inflation to demand pull or excess demand.
C. Other economists ascribe inflation to cost-push factors.
D. According to them, inflation is the result of excessive increase in money supply in the face of an elastic supply of goods and services.
6. The basic cause of wage-push inflation is the rise in money wages more rapidly than the productivity of labour.
ABCD (2) BDAC (3) CBAD (4) BDCA
8. 1. The first of the recent spate of conventions aiming to govern global industrial activity is the one to protect the ozone layer.
A. India signed the Montreal Protocol on 17 September 1992.
B. But China has, till recently, not signed the treaty, calling its provisions unfair and discriminatory.
C. The convention, known as the Vienna Convention for the Protection of the
Ozone Layer, 1985, was followed by the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer.
D. It was signed in 1987 by the United States, the European Community and 22 other countries, including India.
6. Such an act came unexpectedly from China which is one of the most rapidly developing countries.
(1) CDBA (2) CDAB (3) ABCD (4) CADB
DIRECTIONS for questions 9 TO 14: A number of sentences are given below which, when properly sequenced , form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the four choices given to construct a coherent paragraph.
9. A. By releasing an ultraviolet photon, the atom falls back to the original energy level.
B. From this high energy level, the atom will almost always release an electron, whereby the energy of the ultraviolet photon is dissipated.
C. In the absence of green light, when a strontium atom absorbs a photon of ultraviolet radiations, its energy increases by a discrete amount.
D. But, ever so often, the high -energy atom will emit a photon of other ultraviolet or green light.
(1) CBDA (2) CBAD (3) CADB (4) CABD
10. A. Frictions accruing from bilateral trade have been on the increase since the 1980s.
B. Apart from the electronic problem, the automobile issue began to assume the character of a significant irritant.
C. The protective policy followed by Japan has its adverse impact on trading partners, particularly the US.
D. Japan in the 1970s continued to maintain an exceptionally high tariff even after lifting of quantitative restrictions on imports of automobiles.
(1) DBCA (2) DBAC (3) BDCA (4) BDAC
11. A. Instead, one could always help in averting these situations.
B. Often in a religion, people fight with each other on issues that are thoroughly irrational and illogical.
C. If one used scientific reasoning and logic, examined facts and the basis.
D. Much of the rising and blood shed in communal violence can be avoided if the people involved don’t blindly believe the rumours or get swayed by those who preached hatred.
(1) CBAD (2) BDCA (3) DBCA (4) CADB
12. A. With the pressure on resources of development becoming increasingly
severe, the issue of tapping the agricultural surplus cannot be put off.
B. But the methods of utilizing these resources more efficiently have not been
C. The existence of a substantial surplus in this sector is not in doubt.
D. There has been a tendency to concentrate on the possibilities of using an
agricultural income tax to tap these resources.
(1) ABCD (2) ACBD (3) CBDA (4) DCBA
13. A. And, at its best such programming represents a creative collaboration
between the educational faculty and production teams.
B. Tele-education or telecourses have been beamed in the United States since
the early 1950s.
C. Today, televised learning for the distant learner has come to use all the
capabilities of the medium to bring a subject alive.
D. The early programmes merely telecast the teacher at a black board, or used
the simplest of visual aids.
(1) BCDA (2) BDCA (3) DCBA (4) BDAC
14. A. Yet, paradoxically, there is greater mass discontent in nearly the whole of
Latin America, the Caribbean, the Middle East and parts of Asia.
B. Commodity prices have been at levels yielding much better terms of trade
than they were before the war.
C. Real income has risen faster than ever before, social services have improved.
D. The decade and a half since the end of the war, has over-all been a good
period for the underdeveloped countries.
(1) CADB (2) DCBA (3) DBCA (4) CDBA
DIRECTIONS for questions I5 to 19: Select the correct word/words from the choices that
complete the given sentence as your answer. Please note that more than once choice may fit in
to make synta ctically correct sentence but select the choice that is logical in the context of the
15. An experienced politician, who knew better than to launch a campaign in troubled
political waters, she intended to wait for a more____ occasion before she announced
(1) propitious (2) provocative
(3) questionable (4) perfect
16. The judge ruled that the evidence was inadmissible on the grounds that it was not___
to the issue at hand
(1) useful (2) germane (3) manifest (4) inchoate
17. To seek ____ from the ____ summer of the plains many people prefer going to cooler
climes during the summer months.
(1) refuge ……. scalding (2) shelter………. boiling
(3) respite…….. scorching (4) solace ………..blazing
18. The columnist was almost__________ when he mentioned his friends but he was
unpleasant and even ____ when he discussed people who irritated him.
(1) recalcitrant. . . sarcastic (2) reverential……..acrimonious
(3) sensitive ….... remorseful (4) insipid ………… militant
19. Quick-breeding and immune to most pesticides, cockroaches are so _______ that
even a professional exterminator may fail to_______ them.
(1) Vulnerable……. Eradicate (2) widespread …….. discern
(3) Fragile ……. destroy (4) hardy ……..eliminate
Directions: for question 20-24: Each pair of CAPITALIZED words given below is followed
by four pairs of words Choose the pair which exhibit the relationship similar to that
expressed in the capitalized pair
20. ROTATE: GYRATE
(1) Putrefy: Reject (2) Anachronism: Cubism
(3) Accolade: Criticism (4) Absolve: Exonerate
21. TEPEE: RED INDIAN
(1) Tree: Bark (2) Tent: Camping
(3) Igloo: Eskimo (4) House: Man
22. WOOL: ACRYLIC
(I) Minutes: Day (2) Cotton: Polyester
(3) India: Assam (4) Nylon Rayon
23. COMMITMENT: GROW TH
(1) Ingenuity: Invention (2) Gullibility: Experiment
(3) Loquaciousness: Sobriety (4) Taciturnity: Silence
24. FISH: MERMAID
(I) Unicom: Tapestry (2) Horse: Centaur
(3) Pegasus: Fly (4) Cat: Lion
1. A person who has a certain amount with him goes to the market. He can buy 50
oranges or 40 mangoes. He retains 10% of the amount for taxi fare and buys 20
mangoes, and of the balance he purchases oranges. The number of oranges he can
(1) 36 (2) 40 (3) 15 (4) 20
2. Two-fifths of the voters promise to vote for P and the rest promise to vote for Q. Of
these, on the last day, 15% of the voters went back on their promise to vote for P and
25% of voters went back of their promise to vote for Q, and P lost by 2 votes. Then the
total number of voters is:
(1) 100 (2) 110 (3) 90 (4) 95
3. Two positive integers differ by 4 and the sum of their reciprocals is 10/21. One of the
(1) 3 (2) 1 (3) 5 (4) 21
4. ABCD is a square of area 4, which is divided into four non -overlapping triangles as
shown in the figure. The sum of the perimeters of the triangles is:
(1) 8(2 + ?2) (2) 8(1 + ?2) (3) 4(1 + ?2) (4) 4(2 + ?2)
5. What is the va lue of m which satisfies 3m² - 21m + 30 < 0?
(1) m < 2, or m > 5 (2) m > 2
(3) 2 < m < 5 (4) m < 5
- 1 is divisible by
(1) 13 (2) 31 (3) 5 (4) None of these
9. The sides of a triangle are 5, 12 and 13 units respectively. A rectangle is constructed
which is equal in area to the triangle and has a width of 10 units. Then the perimeter
of the rectangle is
(1) 30 (2) 26 (3) 13 (4) None of these
10. Which one of the following cannot be the ratio of angles in a right-angled triangle?
(1) 1: 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 1 : 3 (3) 1 : 3 : 6 (4) None of these
11. Three bells chime at an interval of 18, 24 and 32 minutes respectively. At a certain
time they begin to chime together. What length of time will elapse before they chime
(1) 2 hours 24 minutes (2) 4 hours 48 minutes
(3) 1 hour 36 minutes (4) 5 hours
12. A, B, C and D are four towns, any three of which are non -collinear. The number of
ways to construct three roads each joining a pair of towns so that the roads do not
form a triangle is:
(1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) more than 9
13. For the product n(n + 1) (2n + 1), n ? N, which one of the following is necessarily
(1) It is always even
(2) Divisible by 3.
(3) Always divisible by the sum of the square of first n natural numbers
(4) Never divisible by 237.
14. Ram purchased a flat at Rs. 1 lakh and Prem purchased a plot of land worth Rs. 1.1
lakh. The respective annual rates at which the prices of the flat and the plot increased
were 10% and 5%. After two years they exchanged their belongings and one paid the
other the difference. Then:
(1) Ram paid Rs. 275 to Prem (2) Ram paid Rs. 475 to Prem
(3) Ram paid Rs. 2750 to Prem (4) Prem paid Rs. 475 to Ram
15. The remainder obtained when a prime number greater than 6 is divided by 6 is:
(1) 1 or 3 (2) 1 or 5 (3) 3 or 5 (4) 4 or 5
16. In a race of 200 meters, A beats S by 20 meters and N by 40 metres. If S and N are
running a race of 100 metres with exactly the same speed as before, then by how
many metres will S beat N?
(1) 11.11 metres (2) 10 metres (3) 12 metres (4) 25 metres
18. The rate of inflation was 1000%. What will be the cost of an article, which costs 6 units
of currency now, two years from now?(1) 666 (2) 660 (3) 720 (4) 726
19. Boxes numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 are kept in a row, and they are to be filled with either
a red or a blue ball, such that no two adjacent boxes can be filled with blue balls. How
many different arrangements are possible, given that all balls of a given colour are
exactly identical in all respects?
(1) 8 (2) 10 (3) 15 (4) 22
Directions Q. 20 to 21: are based on the following information:
There are three different cable channels namely Ahead, Luck and Bang. In a survey it was
found that 85% of viewers respond to Bang, 20% to Luck, and 30% to Ahead. 20% of viewers
respond to exactly two channels and 5% to none.
20. What percentage of the viewers responded to all three?
(1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 14 (4) None of these
21. Assuming 20% respond to Ahead and Bang, and 16% respond to Bang and Luck,
what is the percentage of viewers who watch only Luck?
(1) 20 (2) 10 (3) 16 (4) None of these
22. One root of x² + kx - 8 = 0 is square of the other. Then, the value of k is:
(1) 2 (2) 8 (3) - 8 (4) - 2
24. The length of a ladder is exactly equal to the height of the wall it is resting against. If
lower end of the ladder is kept on a stool of height 3 m and the stool is kept 9 m away
from the wall, the upper end of the ladder coincides with the top of the wall. Then,
the height of the wall is:
(1) 12 m (2) 15 m (3) 18 m (4) 11 m
25. The largest value of min (2 + x², 6 - 3x) when x > 0 is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
26. A man invests Rs. 3000 at a rate of 5% per annum. How much more should he invest
at a rate of 8%, so that he can earn a total of 6% per annum?
(1) Rs. 1200 (2) Rs. 1300 (3) Rs. 1500 (4) Rs. 2000
27. Three consecutive positive even numbers are such that thrice the first number
exceeds double the third by 2; then the third number is:
(1) 10 (2) 14 (3) 16 (4) 12
Directions Q. 28 to 31: use the following data:
A and B are running along a circular course of radius 7 km in opposite directions such that
when they meet they reverse their directions and when they meet, A will run at the speed of
B and vice-versa. Initially, the speed of A is thrice the speed of B. Assume that they start from
M0 and they first meet at M1, then at M2, next at M3, and finally at M4.
28. What is the shortest distance between M1 and M2?
(1) 11 km (2) 7? 2 km (3) 7 km (4) 14 km
29. What is the shortest distance between M1, and M3 among the course?
(1) 22 km (2) 14? 2 km (3) 22? 2 km (4) 14 km
30. Which is the point that coincides with M0?
(1) M1 (2) M2 (3) M3 (4) M4
1. What is the approximate percentage of schools, where the enrolment was below 120?
(1) 59.16 (2) 59.27 (3) 60 (4) 61
2. What is the approximate percentage of schools, where the enrolment was above 79
but below 180?
(1) 56 (2) 56.39 (3) 57 (4) 55
3. Under which class does the maximum number of schools fall?
(1) 100-119 (2) 80-99 (3) 60-79 (4) None of these
4. What is the approximate percentage of the least number of schools for the classes of
(1) 8 (2) 9.5 (3) 9 (4) 10
5. What is the number of schools where the enrolment is above 99 but below 160?
(1) 2550 (2) 2033 (3) 1833 (4) 1316
7. What is the average of Rural Male Population in millions?
(1) 36.1 (2) 39.7 (3) 37.9 (4) 30.3
8. In which category of population, is there the lowest percentage of children in the
(1) Urban males 5 - 9 (2) Rural males 5 - 9
(3) Urban females 5 - 9 (4) Rural females 10 - 14
9. What is the approximate percentage of children of all categories not in school?
(1) 40.8 (2) 31.5 (3) 30.5 (4) 31.13
10. What percent is the ratio between urban males and rural males not in school?
(1) 16 (2) 18 (3) 15.33 (4) None of these
11. What is the approximate number of children in millions who are working?
(1) 17 (2) 18 (3) 19 (4) 16
12. What is the approximate percentage of all categories of children not in school and not
(1) 20.06 (2) 21.56 (3) 22.36 (4) None of these
13. In which category of children, is there a maximum number of not in school and not
(1) Rural females 10 - 14 (2) Rural males 5 - 9
(3) Rural females 5 - 9 (4) Urban males 10 - 14
14. In which category of children, there is maximum number not in school but working?
(1) Rural males 10 - 14 (2) Rural females 10 - 14
(3) Urban females 10 - 14 (4) Urban males 10 14
15. What percentage of the total population of the children of all categories is in school?
(1) 68.87 (2) 69.86 (3) 67.9 (4) 68.80
16. What approximately is the percentage ratio between the total number of children not
in school and in school?
(1) 50.20 (2) 44.20 (3) 45.20 4 (4) 46.20Directions for questions 17 to 26: Study the following graph and answer questions
17. Which year shows the maximum percentage of export with respect to production?
(1) 1992 (2) 1993 (3) 1996 (4) 1995
18. The population of India in 1993 was
(1) 800 million (2) 1080 million (3) 985 million (4) 900 million
19. If the area under tea production was less by 10% in 1994 than in 1993, then the
approxima te rate of increase in productivity of tea in 1994 was
(1) 97.22 (2) 3 (3) 35 (4) None of the above
20. The average proportion of tea exported to the tea produced over the period is
(1) 0.87 (2) 0.47 (3) 0.48 (4) 0.66
21. What is the first half-decade’s average per capita availability of tea?
(1) 457 gm (2) 535 gm (3) 446 gm (4) 430 gm
22. In which year was the per capita availability of tea minimum?
(1) 1996 (2) 1994 (3) 1991 (4) None of these
23. In which year was there minimum percentage of export with respect to production?
(1) 1991 (2) 1992 (3) 1993 (4) 1994
24. In which year we had maximum quantity of tea for domestic consumption?
(1) 1994 (2) 1991 (3) 1993 (4) 1996
25. What approximately was the average quantity of tea available for domestic
consumption during the period?
(1) 324.3 million kg (2) 400 million kg
(3) 410.3 million kg (4) 320.3 million kg
26. What was approximately the average population during the period?
(1) 625 million (2) 624 million (3) 600 mil lion (4) 757 million
27. In which period, did we have the most adverse trade balance for India?
(1) 1996-97 (2) 1989-90 (3) 1998-99 (4) 1990-91
28. What was the average % growth rate of exports during the entire period?
(1) 6.5 (2) 9.56 (3) 5.06 (4) 10.26
29. In which period was the trade balances the best?
(1) 1998-99 (2) 1991-92 (3) 1994-95 (4) 1993-94
30. In which period the growth rate of exports was the highest?
(1) 1995-96 (2) 1993-94 (3) 1989-90 (4) None of these
Directions Q. 31 to 40: Each item has a question followed by two statements,
Mark 1, if the question can be answered with the help of I alone,
Mark 2, if the question can be answered with the help of II alone,
Mark 3, if the question can be answered only with th e help of both I and II,
Mark 4, if the question cannot be answered even with the help of both statements.
31. Is the distance from the office to home less than the distance from the cinema hall to
I. The time taken to travel from home to office is as much as the time taken
from home to the cinema hall, both distances being covered without
II. The road from the cinema hall to home is bad and speed reduces, as
compared to that one the road from home to the office.
32. A and B work at digging a ditch alternately for a day each. If A can dig a ditch in ‘a’
days and B can dig it in ‘b’ days, will work get done faster if A begins the work?
I. n is a positive integer such that n(1/a + 1/b) = 1 II. b > a
33. If twenty sweets are distributed among some boys and girls such that each girl gets
two sweets and each boys gets three sweets, what is the number of boys and girls?
I. The number of girls is not more than five.
II. If each girl gets 3 sweets and each boy gets 2 sweets, the number of sweets
required for the children will still be the same.34. If the selling price were to be increased by 10%, the sales would reduce by 10%. In
what ratio would profits change?
I. The cost price remains constant. II. The cost price increased by 10%.
35. What is the average weight of the 3 new team members who are recently included
into the team?
I. The average weight of the team increases by 20 kg.
II. The 3 new men substitute 3 earlier members whose weighs are 64 kg, 75 kg,
and 66 kg.
36. Is segment PQ greater than segment RS?
I. PB > RE, BQ = ES
II. B is a point on PQ, E is a point on RS.
37. Three boys had a few Coffee Bite toffees with them. The number of toffees with the
second were four more than those with the first and the number of toffees with the
third were four more than those with the second. How many toffees were there in all?
I. The number of toffees with each of them is a multiple of 2.
II. The first boy ate up four toffees from what he had and the second boy ate up
six toffees from what had and the third boy gave them two toffees each from
what he had, and the number of toffees remaining with each of them formed
a geometric progression.
38. Little Beau Peep she lost her sheep, she couldn’t remember how many were there.
She knew she would have 400 more next year, than the number of sheep she had last
year. How many sheep were there?
I. The number of sheep last year was 20% more than the year before that and
this simple rate of increase continues to be the same for the next 10 years.
II. The increase is compounded annually.
39. What will be the total cost of creating a 1 -foot border of tiles along the inside edges of
I. The room is 48 feet in length and 50 feet in breadth.
II. Every tile costs Rs. 10.
40. Ten boys to a neighbouring orchard. Each boy steals a few mangoes. What is the total
number of mangoes they steal?
I. The first boy steals 4 mangoes, the fourth boy steals 16 mangoes, the eight
boy 32 mangoes and the tenth boy steals 40 mangoes.
II. The first boy stole the minimum number of mangoes and the tenth boy stole
the maximum number of mangoes.
Answer the questions below:
1. If agriculture accounts for 30% of GDP, what was agricultural sector’s contribution to
GDP growth in1993?
1) 12% 2) 1.2% 3) 4% 4) Can’t say
2. In 1995, total industrial production (taking 1981-82 base as 100) touched the index at
230. What was the value of index in 1996?
1) 270 2) 240 3) 250 4) 260
3. Which of the following is/are correct?
Industrial production never dropped from its previous year.
11. In 1998, agricultural production was a loss-making enterprise.
1) 1 only 2) 11 only 3) 1 and 11 4) Neither 1 nor 11
4. Which of the following is/are correct?
I. In 1999, the industrial production was less than that in 1998.
II. In 1997 the industrial production was more than that in 1996.
1) 1 only 2) 11 only 3) 1 and 11 4) Neither 1 nor 115. In 1994, agricultural production was 180 million tones of food grains. What was the
production in 1996?
1) 183.3mt 2) 196mt 3) 201mt 4) 190.2mt
Directions for questions 6 to 10: In these questions, choose one of the figures labelled a, b, c,
and d, which best represents the relationship among the items given.
6. Mangoes, Apples, Fruits
7. Coffee, Tea, Beverages
8. Musicians, Men, Women
9. Parrots, Birds, Mice
10. Fish, Herring, Animals living in water
Directions for questions 11 to 15: For these questions, what is the missing element in the
sequence represented by the question mark?
11. 1, 1, 2, 6, 24,?, 720
(1) 100 (2) 104 (3) 108 (4) 120
12. 2, 12, 30, 56, ?, 132, 182
(1) 116 (2) 76 (3) 90 (4) 86
13. 625, 5, 125, 25, 25, ?, 5
(1) 125 (2) 5 (3) 25 (4) 625
14. P3C, R5F, T8I, V12L, ?
(1) Y17O (2) X17M (3) X17O (4) X16O
15. A, G, L, P, S, ?
(1) X (2) Y (3) W (4) U
16. In a certain code, EASE is written as GUCG. How is CUT written in that code?
(1) UWE (2) VWE (3) EWU (4) CWF
17. If BRIDGE is written as EULGJH in a certain code, how will FRUIT be written in that
(1) IUXLW (2) IVLXW (3) IUWXL (4) IUXVT
18. In a certain code language, ‘134’ means ‘Good and Tasty’, ‘478’ means ‘see good
pictures’ and ‘729’ means ‘pictures are faint’. Which of the following numerical
symbols stands for ‘see’?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 7 (4) 8
19. In a certain code, CAT is written as SATC and DEAR is written as SEARD. How
would SING be written in that code?
3 4(1) GNISS (2) SINGS (3) SGNIS (4) BGINS
20. If the code of ABCDEF is ZYXWVU, then what is the code for PASS?
(1) KZHH (2) KHZZ (3) KMHH (4) WZHH
21. At an enquiry office at a railway station, a passenger was told ‘A train for Delhi has
left 15 minutes ago, but after every 45 minutes a train leaves for Delhi. The next train
will leave at 8.30 pm’. At what time was this information given to the passenger?
(1) 7.45 pm (2) 8.00 pm (3) 8.15 pm (4) 8.05 pm
22. Five newly - born babies were weighed by the doctor. In her report, she stated that
child A is lighter than child B. Child C is lighter than child D. Child B is lighter than
child D, but heavier than child E. Which child is the heaviest?
(1) E (2) D (3) C (4) A
23. How many triangles are there in the following diagram of a 5-cornered star?
(1) 6 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 14
24. Three views of a cube are given below:
Which number is opposite to the face 4?
(1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 6 (4) 2