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National Institute of Fashion Technology (NIFT)

NIFT, the National Institute of Fashion Technology is the college of design technology; it provides professional education on fashion designing and fulfills all the requirements of garment industry. This institute was started in the year 1986 with the support of the Ministry of Textiles, Government of India and since then NIFT has evolved as the leading institute of India in producing skilled professionals to meet the requirements of the attire industry.  NIFT has its collaboration with National Institute of Design - Ahmadabad, Indian Institute of Leather Products - Madras, Central Leather Research Institute - Madras, Jute Manufacturers Development Corporation - Calcutta, Clothing Manufacturers Association of India - Mumbai and Tirupur Exporters Association Tirupur.


The Institution has their professionally managed centres all at Delhi, Bangalore, Chennai, Gandhinagar, Hyderabad, Kolkata and Mumbai.

NIFT offers various courses like full time diploma course, bachelors and masters programs. They offer various courses in the domains like fashion Design, Leather Design, Accessory Design, Textile Design, Knitwear Design, and Communication Design. The eligibility criterion differs depending upon the courses.

An entrance test is conducted by the institution usually in the month of February/ March to provide entrance for the mentioned courses.

Courses Offered:

Undergraduate Courses:

  • B.Des. (Fashion Design)

  • B.Des. (Leather Design)

  • B.Des. (Accessory Design),

  • B.Des. (Textile Design)

  • B.Des. (Knitwear Design)

  • B.Des. (Fashion Communication)

  • B.F.Tech. (Apparel Production)

Master courses:

  • M. Des(Master of Design)

  • M.F.Tech. (Master of Fashion Technology) at master level.

  •  M.F.M. (Master of Fashion Management) in the management discipline.

For further details visit  http://www.nift.ac.in/regularbachelor.html

Application Fee:

Prospectus along with Application Form can be obtained from the selected branches of Axis & IDBI Bank across country on payment of Rs.250/- or from any of the NIFT centres by hand for Rs.250/- or by post enclosing a DD of Rs.350/- in favour of NIFT, New Delhi payable at New Delhi. 

Eligibility Criteria:

Eligibility for Bachelor Programs - Design

B.Des. (Fashion Design / Leather Design / Accessory Design / Textile Design / Knitwear Design / Fashion Communication)

  • The +2 level examination in the 10+2 pattern of examination of any recognized Central/State Board of Secondary Examination, such as Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi, and Council for Indian School of Certificate Examination, New Delhi. OR

  • General Certificate Education (GCE) Examination (London/Cambridge/Sri Lanka) at the Advanced (A) level. OR

  • Any Public School/Board/University Examination in India or in Foreign countries recognized by the Association of Indian Universities as equivalent to 10+2 system. OR

  • A pass grade in the Senior Secondary School Examination conducted by the National Open School with a minimum of five subjects. OR

  • 3 or 4-years diploma recognized by AICTE or a State Board of Technical Education.

Eligibility for Bachelor Programme - Technology


B.FTech . (Apparel Production)

  • The +2 level examination in the 10+2 pattern of examination of any recognized Central/State Board of Secondary Examination, such as Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi, and Council for Indian School of Certificate Examination, New Delhi with Physics, Chemistry  and Maths. OR

  • General Certificate Education (GCE) Examination (London/Cambridge/Sri Lanka) at the advanced (A) level with Physics, Chemistry and Maths. OR

  • Any Public School/Board/University Examination in India or in foreign countries recognized by the Association of Indian Universities as equivalent to 10+2 system with Physics, Chemistry and Maths. OR                  

  • A pass grade in the Senior Secondary School Examination conducted by the National Open School with a minimum of five subjects with Physics, Chemistry and Maths. OR

  • 3 or 4-years diploma recognized by AICTE or a State Board of Technical Education (Engineering background).

    (Candidate must be pass in Physics, Chemistry & Mathematics)

    Please note that the upper age limit for applying in bachelor programmes is  restricted to 23 years as on 1st November, 2008.

Eligibility for Master Program - Design


M.Des. (Master of Design)

  • Graduation degree from a recognized University in any discipline*   OR

  • Bachelor in Applied Arts (Fashion Design / Visual Communication / Graphic Design / Industrial Design / Interior Design / Multimedia Design / Product Design / Textiles & Accessories. OR

  • B.A. (Fine Arts) or B.Sc. (Textiles & Clothing) OR                  

  • B.Arch. OR

  • Design Diploma / Degree  from NIFT / NID only        

Candidates having relevant industry experience in areas of Fashion / Textile / Communication Design would be preferred.

*If a candidate possessing Graduation Degree in any discipline applies for the course, then he / she has to compulsory undergo 2 months (i.e. 8 weeks) training programme to develop the desired skills before taking on the course itself.     

Eligibility for Master Program - Management


M.F.M . (Master of Fashion Management)

A three years Bachelor's Degree or equivalent in any discipline recognized by the Association of Indian Universities or Diploma in Accessory / Fashion Design / FIT from NIFT only.


For foreign Bachelor's Degree, not recognized by the Association of Indian Universities, proper certification by a National Body constituted in the country concerned for granting equivalence will have to be produced.

Eligibility for Master Program - Technology


M.FTech. (Master of Fashion Technology)

B.E. / B.Tech. (Textiles / Apparel / Mechanical / Industrial / Production / Electronics / Computer / Information Technology) .

Test Paper Pattern:

The written entrance exam comprises of General Ability Test (GAT) and Creative Ability Test (CAT).

The General Ability Test (GAT) includes Quantitative Ability, Communication Ability, English Comprehension, Analytical Ability and Business Domain Test.

The Creative ability (CAT)Test is conducted to judge the skill, power of observation, novelty and design ability of the candidate. An important aspect observed in this test is the candidate's usage of colour and design.

Shortlisted candidates from this written entrance examination undergo a Situation Test which is a practical test to assess the candidate's skills for material handling and novel ability on a given situation with a given set of materials. 

Important Dates:

Application Form Available 

     : 19th November, 2010 to 5th January, 2011

Last date of Submission of Application Form 

     : 10th January, 2011

Written Entrance Examination

     : 20th February, 2011

Declaration of Written Examination Result

    : End of March, 2011

Situation Test / GD / Interviews

     : April - May, 2011

Declaration of Final Results Bachelor Programs

     : End of May, 2011

Declaration of Final Results Master Programs

     : 1st week of June, 2011

The general admission calendar is

Announcement of Admission

November

Application Form Available 

November to December

Written Entrance Examination

First week of February

Declaration of Written Examination Result

Mid March

Situation Test / GD / Interviews

April - May

Declaration of Final Results

End of May

For further details check out  http://www.nift.ac.in/admissions.html

Contact Details:

Admissions


Assistant Registrar (Admissions)
Tel: (011) 26850470, 26542000
Email:  admissions@nift.ac.in

For any further detailed information kindly visit www.nift.ac.in or visit the nearest NIFT centre.

Sample Test Paper:

Section Name : NIFT - 1

No of questions : 100

Time(minutes) : 120

Start Test

This paper is up to 40 questions only.

1. Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer.

1. Sunit is more talkative than

2. any boy in the class because

3. he is not afraid of the teacher

4. since he is his brother

2 . Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer.

1. Lawyers these days can practice

2. civil law, criminal law

3. or the law of the Constitution

4. or all of them together

3. Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer

1. She was wearing a wig that was

2. far more attractive than

3. the other women who had

4. their natural hair

4. Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer

1. The only persons in the theatre

2. on that stormy night

3. were the staff of the theatre

4. and me

5 . Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer.

1. After finding the problem

2. the mechanic cleaned the carburetor

3 . started the engine

4. and found it working smoothly

6. Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer.

1. If one reads the newspaper regularly

2. you will be surprised at the improvement

3. in your overall reading skills

4. from day to day

7. Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer

1. She was as pretty

2. if not prettier than

3. any other girl who had come

4. to participate in the meeting

8 . The average of 6 numbers is 19. The average of 5 of these is 20. What is the sixth number?

1. 24

2. 38

3. 119

4. 14

9 . Two poles of heights 35 m and 20 m stand on a plane surface. If the distance between their feet is 20 m, what is the distance between their tops?

1. 50 m

2. 25 m

3. 40 m

4. 55 m

10 . of of of a number is 8. What is the number?

1. 72

2. 68

3. 84

4. 70

11. If 3x = , x = ?

1. 3

2. 9

3. 3

4. ? 9

12 . 25% of a number is greater than the other number by 5. If sum of the numbers is 70, what is the ratio of the larger number to the smaller number?

1. 6 : 1

2. 3 : 1

3. 5 : 1

4. 4 : 1

13. The third proportional of (X2 Y2) and (x y) is ________.

1.

2.

3. (x + y)2

4. x3 ? y3

14. A sum of Rs. 1560 is to be distributed amongst A, B and C in the proportion of : : . What is the share of A?

1. Rs.780

2. Rs.640

3. Rs.720

4. Rs.840

15 . Which of the following is the smallest number which when divided by 20, 25, 35 and 40 leaves the remainders as 12, 17, 27 and 32 respectively?

1. 1200

2. 1400

3. 1408

4. 1392

16. The floor of the rectangular room of size 10 m (length) x 8.5 m (width) x 8.5 m (height) is to be carpeted so as to leave a margin of 1.25 m from all sides. What would be the area of the carpet required?

1. 45 sq.m.

2. 40 sq.m

3. 60 sq.m

4. 90 sq.m

17. 6 examiners working 5 hours a day can check 750 answer books in 8 days. At the same rate of checking, in what period of time can 4 examiners examine 800 answer books, working 8 hours a day?

1. 4 days

2. 8 days

3. 9 days

4. 12 days

18. Two railway stations A and B are 300 km apart. In what time will two trains, starting from the opposite ends and travelling towards each other with equal speeds, meet each other?

1. 4 hrs

2. 1 hr.

3. 2 hrs

4. Cannot be determined

19. A sailor travels in a boat 8 km downstream in 40 minutes and returns back to the same point in 1 hour. What is the speed of the boat in still water?

1. 6 kmph

2. 12 kmph

3. 9 kmph

4. 10 kmph

20. The average age of a couple was 26 years at the time of their marriage. After 11 years of marriage, the

average age of the family with 3 children becomes 19 years. What is the average age of the children?

1. 8yrs

2. 6 yrs

3. 7 yrs

4. 11 yrs

21. Milk and water are mixed in the ratio 4 : 1 to form solution A and in the ratio of 3 : 2 to form solution B. A man takes equal quantities of solutions A and B and mixes them together. What is the ratio of quantities of milk to that of water in the mixture so formed ?

1. 7 : 3

2. 1 : 1

3. 3 : 7

4. 3 : 2

22. What is the ratio of side of a square to the radius of a circle, both with equal perimeters?

1. 1 : II

2. 2 : II

3. II : 1

4. II : 2

23. Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer.

1. There is only the plantain

2. and one apple in the refrigerator

3. so let us go to the market

4. and buy some more fruits

24. Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer

1. Like his brother who did not wear his helmet

2. and was injured in the accident

3. Rajan was always careful

4. and wore his helmet without fail

25. Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer

1. It is futile to discuss this further

2. since neither him nor you

3. is going to agree

4. with the other on this issue

26. Direction: In the following question four words or phrases have been underlined. Only one underlined part in each sentence is not acceptable in standard English. Pick up the part (A), (B), (C) or (D).

I have seen (A) as bed or worse scenes of (B) disorder at the English fair (C) than in (D) any other fair.

1. (A)

2. (B)

3. (C)

4. (D)

27. Direction: In the following question four words or phrases have been underlined. Only one underlined part in each sentence is not acceptable in standard English. Pick up the part (A), (B), (C) or (D).

This is the third (A) communication we have (B) sent and(C) we are very surprised that we have received (D) no answer

1. (A)

2. (B)

3. (C)

4. (D)

28 Direction: In the following question four words or phrases have been underlined. Only one underlined part in each sentence is not acceptable in standard English. Pick up the part (A), (B), (C) or (D).

The officers are (A) now (B) perfectly happy fishing, boating, shooting, (C) playing cricket and (D) other sport.

1. (A)

2. (B)

3. (C)

4. (D)

29. Direction: In the following question four words or phrases have been underlined. Only one underlined part in each sentence is not acceptable in Standard English. Pick up the part (A), (B), (C) or (D).

While in conversation (A) with a high ranking military officer (B) he told me that (C) at the head-quarters nothing (D) was known

1. (A)

2. (B)

3 . (C)

4. (D)

30. Direction: In the following question four words or phrases have been underlined. Only one underlined part in each sentence is not acceptable in standard English. Pick up the part (A), (B), (C) or (D)

(A) The fear of an (B) impending invasion has more to do (C) than even the debasing of the coinage with the (D) financial difficulties

1. (A)

2. (B)

3. (C)

4. (D)

31. Directions: Select the correct word or phrase to complete a grammatical and idiomatic sentence

The patient was cheered --- by the news that she was likely to be discharged in a day or two.

1. on

2. up

3. out

4. down

32. Directions: Select the correct word or phrase to complete a grammatical and idiomatic sentence

The thieves had driven ten miles before the police caught them

1. on with

2. upon

3. up to

4. up with

33. Directions: Select the correct word or phrase to complete a grammatical and idiomatic sentence

As soon as the visitors dishonest purpose was discovered, he was --- the door

1. show with

2. shown to

3. shown

4. shown out of

34. Directions: Select the correct word or phrase to complete a grammatical and idiomatic sentence

As soon as my attention was --- the dangerous state of the staircase, I got it repaired.

1. drawn for

2. drawn upon

3. drawn near

4. drawn to

35. Directions: Select the correct word or phrase to complete a grammatical and idiomatic sentence.

---- pompous, he was an entertaining companion

1. Before

2. Never

3. Though

4. Despite

36. Directions: Choose a word or phrase which is opposite in meaning to the key word.

Esteem

1. veneration

2. revere

3. mighty

4. disdain

37. Directions: Choose a word or phrase which is opposite in meaning to the key word.

Eternal

1. permanent

2. perpetual

3. transitory

4. active

38. Directions: Choose a word or phrase which is opposite in meaning to the key word : Eulogistic

1. pretty

2. critical

3. brief

4. stern

39. Directions: Choose a word or phrase which is opposite in meaning to the key word : Euphonious

1. strident

2. lethargic

3. literary

4. significant

40. Directions: Choose a word or phrase which is opposite in meaning to the key word

Evitable

1. unavoidable

2. eatable

3. half-baked

4. crisp

 

 

 
 
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